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On 9 jul 2007, at 22.09, Rev Fever wrote: > And, I will wager big bucks that not one person on LD has ever paid > a royalty to some composer for dubbing from someone else's copy of > a recording by some composer. > So, what's the real difference with that, as opposed to some tunes > being played in a restaurant? None that I can really tell. ;-) Well, doesn't American law have it legal to make a copy "for private use"? But the restaurants etc are mainly billed for using the music, not only the actual copy of the recording of the music. Those are two different rights, normally owned by composer/publisher and record label. I like that these matters come up on the list, lots of interesting posts so far :-) Greetings from Sweden Per Boysen www.boysen.se (Swedish) www.looproom.com (international)